Karlaperla79 Karlaperla79
  • 02-10-2020
  • History
contestada

Why are manorial villages considered self-sufficient?

Respuesta :

Hi030
Hi030 Hi030
  • 02-10-2020

Answer:

A manor was the Lord's estate. Manors had to be self sufficient because of how dangerous it was to leave them. One way manors were self sufficient is that they had plenty of farms to grow crops. The manor was also self-sufficient because it provided small houses for the serfs.

Explanation:

Answer Link

Otras preguntas

The circumference of a globe is 16pi inches. what is the volume of the globe? show your work. use 3.14 for pi ​
You recently discovered that your job provides a 30% matching towards your retirement. If you deposit $300 each month into a retirement account with an APR of 5
what is an equation of the line that passes through the points (6,5) and (7,7)
Explain how the processes of sedimentary rock formation change the geosphere.
Why are cars often called by numbers, like the BMW 428i or Nissan NV2500?
The stress placed on a normal fault is tensional compressional frictional symmetrical
Passes through (-2,13) and (2,-7); write answer in slope intercept form.
If the drug is taken twice a day and costs $234.50 for 60 pills, what is the cost to prevent 1 event if the NNT is 10?
Danny drew a ray diagram to show the image of a plastic bottle produced by a concave lens. Which describes how the bottle should appear in the diagram? The imag
23. Explain the process of removing a president from office. What role does the House of Representatives play? What role does the Senate play?